12-16-2013, 11:09 PM
Fascists institutionalized its use.
And my point is the behavior was used by humans, including groups of humans, long before the term "facism" was invented. How is it that facism made this technique "common?" Call a logical fallacy a logically fallacy, why the need to drag ideology into it? Are you suggesting this "technique" was not common to communists, nationalists, socialists, tsarists, religion, or any other institution until facism used it? I think you are overreaching.