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Why do people call a decrease of 40% to 20% a decrease of 20% instead of 50%?
#3
Because they can't trust their audience to know basic math.

Also, it's just another way of saying the same thing. One expresses a relative change, the other an absolute change.

Somebody put 50% more pee in someone's Wheaties this morning?
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Re: Why do people call a decrease of 40% to 20% a decrease of 20% instead of 50%? - by rjmacs - 02-20-2018, 05:22 PM

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