01-26-2008, 05:11 PM
Usually I can find answers to my science questions with searches on the internet, but there is one that came up recently that I haven't been able to hunt down. A little background first: I'm a middle school science teacher at a school for gifted kids - so, of course, the school uses all Macs for computers :-). I teach all the basic sciences even though my degree is in biology. At the middle school level my lack of having a lot of college coursework in physics and chemistry isn't usually a problem, but since I'm dealing with gifted kids I do like to take them as far as they are able to go and occasionally that leads me out of my comfort zone. Last week, we were having a discussion where one of the students asked a question that definitely was outside my comfort zone.
We had gone over the history of the development of atomic theory - all the way from Democritus to Dalton, Thomson, Rutherford and Bohr. As part of the explanation for why electrons are only at the energy levels they are I talked a bit about de Broglie's wave theory of matter - especially with respect to electrons and that only complete wavelengths of electrons around the nucleus were possible, hence, electrons could "inhabit" only certain energy levels. Then later, when I was having the kids try to analyze and explain the relationship of the number of protons in the nucleus, size of atoms, electronegativity and first ionization energy across the periods and down the groups on the Periodic Table, one of the students hit me with a question that stumped me. What she asked was that if the atoms were getting smaller across the period, yet all the valence electrons were in the same energy level, and if the electrons must be only at energy levels because they must have "complete" wavelengths, then how could the atoms be getting smaller and still have the "proper" wavelength for that energy level?
I thought that was an exceptionally astute question for a 13 year old. I admitted to her that I didn't know. I told her I'd try to find out but that my initial speculation was that as the greater number of protons are added to the nucleus across the period, increasing the attraction on the electrons, maybe the wavelength of the electrons at the energy levels shifts (same number of waves but with shorter wavelengths?) so that they can still "fit" full waves around the nucleus even though they are moving closer to the nucleus. I tried to make it clear to her that that was a pretty uninformed hunch on my part, though. That got me wondering, in addition, if a possible shifting of wavelength of the electrons in an energy level as they got "pulled" closer to the nucleus across a period has something to do with differences in the emission and absorption spectra of different elements (something we also discuss).
Anybody know the answer? Or know where I can find the answer? Or is the question itself misplaced?
We had gone over the history of the development of atomic theory - all the way from Democritus to Dalton, Thomson, Rutherford and Bohr. As part of the explanation for why electrons are only at the energy levels they are I talked a bit about de Broglie's wave theory of matter - especially with respect to electrons and that only complete wavelengths of electrons around the nucleus were possible, hence, electrons could "inhabit" only certain energy levels. Then later, when I was having the kids try to analyze and explain the relationship of the number of protons in the nucleus, size of atoms, electronegativity and first ionization energy across the periods and down the groups on the Periodic Table, one of the students hit me with a question that stumped me. What she asked was that if the atoms were getting smaller across the period, yet all the valence electrons were in the same energy level, and if the electrons must be only at energy levels because they must have "complete" wavelengths, then how could the atoms be getting smaller and still have the "proper" wavelength for that energy level?
I thought that was an exceptionally astute question for a 13 year old. I admitted to her that I didn't know. I told her I'd try to find out but that my initial speculation was that as the greater number of protons are added to the nucleus across the period, increasing the attraction on the electrons, maybe the wavelength of the electrons at the energy levels shifts (same number of waves but with shorter wavelengths?) so that they can still "fit" full waves around the nucleus even though they are moving closer to the nucleus. I tried to make it clear to her that that was a pretty uninformed hunch on my part, though. That got me wondering, in addition, if a possible shifting of wavelength of the electrons in an energy level as they got "pulled" closer to the nucleus across a period has something to do with differences in the emission and absorption spectra of different elements (something we also discuss).
Anybody know the answer? Or know where I can find the answer? Or is the question itself misplaced?